[JSM17]

What is the one baptism of Ephesians 4 and how does it parallel with the baptism of the great commission?

How do we go into the world and baptize with this one baptism?

[Marc]

The one baptism in Ephesians 4:5 does not mean that there is "only one" baptism but that there is only one baptism "that is necessary in placing a person in the body of Christ" - and that is being baptized with the Holy Spirit. All Christians have been baptized with the Holy Spirit. If you have not been baptized with the Holy Spirit then you are not a Christian. For according to Acts 10:45 and 11:16 to have the Holy Spirit "poured out"(ekcheo) upon you and to be baptized with the Holy Spirit is the same thing. But Paul tells us in Titus 3:6 that the Holy Spirit has been "poured out" (ekcheo) upon all Christians. Thus since they mean the same thing then all Christians have been baptized with the Holy Spirit.

[JSM17]

Then what baptism is Christ talking about in the great commission?When you go into the world teaching and baptizing how do you do this? Why would John the baptist say that Christ baptizes with the Holy Spirit and then tell His apostles to go and baptize?

[Marc]

That refers to water baptism. The text in question though is Ephesians 4:5 and that is talking about being baptized with the Holy Spirit.

[JSM17]

So the N.T. Pattern for all today is that One believes which incompasses repentance and confession, in which one receives the H.S baptism, (saved), then as a proclamation to this salvation in Christ one is water baptized.

[Marc]

I'm not sure if I could have expressed this truth better than you just did.

[JSM17]

Please show me then the passage that teaches that water baptism is only an outward sign of an inward grace!

Show me the passage that teaches that water baptism is optional to obedience to God, because if it isn't optional then it is required?

Tell me what passages in the N.T. that say baptism or baptize that refer to water.

[Marc]

In answer to your first question the conversion of Cornelius shows that it is an outward sign of an inward grace since he was saved before he was water baptized.
Is paratking the Lord's Supper optional. Do you tell people after they havee been baptized that they still aren't saved until they partake of the Lord's Supper?
Acts 10:48 refersto water baptism.

[JSM17]

THE LORD NEVER SAID HE WHO BELIEVES AND PARTAKES OF THE LORD'S SUPPER SHALL BE SAVED, HE SAID HE WHO BELIEVES AND IS BAPTIZED SHALL BE SAVED. MARK 16:15, 16

[Marc]

Mark 16:9-20 is not in the earliest Greek manuscripts (among others) so is therefore too unreliable of a text to base any doctrine on.

[JSM17]

I guess if it fit you theory it wouldn't be a problem, but since it doesn't we will throw it out, I guess all the Greek scholars and God couldn't get it out of the texts, just remember that this is synoptic with the Great commission found in the other Gospels.


The problem truly lies in the idea that you are a dispensationalist, you will never agree with me on the idea that that salvation that came to the Jews came also to the Gentile in like manner.

And those afar of refer to the Gentiles, make the connection within the N.T.

Eph 2:13
13 But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far off have been brought near by the blood of Christ.
NKJV

Paul is talking about the Gentile as thowse who were afar of, make the connection to Acts 2:38, this salvation was to those who were afar off also.

Why do you insist on seperating the Jews and the Gentiles, Christ brought them together as one in the same manner, why is it so important to throw away any obedience to God.

I blame that on people like Martin Luther, Calvin, Wesly and so on.

[Marc]

Fact: Mark 16:9-20 is not in the earliest Greek manuscripts (among others) so is therefore too unreliable of a text to base any doctrine on. In terms of throwing them out who threw them in?

That's right I will not agree that salvation came to the Jews and to the Gentiles in the exact same way because the Bible doesn't say so at all.

Jews - be water baptized - receive the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38).
Gentiles - receive the gift of the Holy Spirit - be water baptized (Acts 10:45, 48).

How you or anyone else can say that is the "same thing" is completely beyond me.


The Jews listening to Peter would have understood those who are afar off as referring to the Jews of the Diaspora (Daniel 9:7).

You are free to blame who you want but I only insist on separating the Jews and the Gentiles because God does in Acts 2:38 and 10:45, 48.

[JSM17]