Instrumental Music - Detecting Inconsistency?
Posted: Mon Sep 17, 2012 10:40 pm
Inquiry in Reference To: [url=http://www.insearchoftruth.org/articles ... ments.html]http://www.insearchoftruth.org/articles ... ments.html[/url]
To the author:
I found the article on instruments in worship to be thought provoking on some points but utterly extreme and hermeneutically inconsistent on others. So some of my knee-jerk reactions were...
1. Are we really to perceive the use of instruments in OT worship as just an allowance by God to satisfy the weakness of men, such as in the case of divorce?
2. If you are an advocate of psalm singing, would it not be a contradiction to sing about the "sound" of an instrument praising God and then turn around and also argue for no instruments in worship? I suppose you could give a very lengthy explanation periodically for a congregation, but it would seem so strange to sing about it, especially since many of the verses are in the form of a command, but reject instruments in worship?
3. Why must we always interpret commands to praise God with instruments figuratively, but interpret commands to praise God with singing literally? I could just as well sing to God from my heart as well as "pluck" my heart strings.
4. When I have heard teaching on the regulative principle of worship (which I am presumptuously assuming you advocate since you mentioned your disagreement with Luther's basis for choirs and instruments), much of it is defended from the OT? However, if I am understanding your argument correctly, we are not to justify our worship practices from the OT because its relevance was abolished with the work of Christ.
Thank yiu for taking time to consider my inquiries.
In Christ
To the author:
I found the article on instruments in worship to be thought provoking on some points but utterly extreme and hermeneutically inconsistent on others. So some of my knee-jerk reactions were...
1. Are we really to perceive the use of instruments in OT worship as just an allowance by God to satisfy the weakness of men, such as in the case of divorce?
2. If you are an advocate of psalm singing, would it not be a contradiction to sing about the "sound" of an instrument praising God and then turn around and also argue for no instruments in worship? I suppose you could give a very lengthy explanation periodically for a congregation, but it would seem so strange to sing about it, especially since many of the verses are in the form of a command, but reject instruments in worship?
3. Why must we always interpret commands to praise God with instruments figuratively, but interpret commands to praise God with singing literally? I could just as well sing to God from my heart as well as "pluck" my heart strings.
4. When I have heard teaching on the regulative principle of worship (which I am presumptuously assuming you advocate since you mentioned your disagreement with Luther's basis for choirs and instruments), much of it is defended from the OT? However, if I am understanding your argument correctly, we are not to justify our worship practices from the OT because its relevance was abolished with the work of Christ.
Thank yiu for taking time to consider my inquiries.
In Christ