In Search of Truth

Is the practice of placing your fellowship at a local church when you move from on city to another a Biblical practice?

Is is wrong to offer the Lord's Supper at the evening service as well as at the morning service.

Does Numbers 9 and II Chronicles 30 have any bearing on the Lord's Supper today?

Dear email,

Thanks for visiting insearchoftruth.org. I will try to answer your questions.

Placing membership with a local church when you move to a new location is a Biblical practice. We read in Acts 9:26-30 that Paul when he came to Jerusalem after his conversion, he tried to "join the disciples" but they were afraid of him because they knew he had been persecuting the disciples. After Barnabas explained what had happened to Paul, he was accepted and was then with them.

In addition, we read in the New Testament of local churches in many cities. For local churches to exist, they would require that people join together to form these churches. We read of elders being appointed in each local church (Acts 14:23), and that the elders were to oversee the flock that was among them (Acts 20:28; I Peter 5:1-4).

There is no mention of any spiritual organization larger than the local church in the New Testament. Thus, if we want to work and worship with a local church, we need to become members of the local church and do our part as is pointed out in I Cor. 12:13-31.

Regarding your second question, the Bible does not set a time for taking the Lord's Supper. You may take it in the morning, afternoon or evening. When the Lord instituted the Lord's Supper in Matt. 26:26-29, He said He would not take it with them "until that day when I drink it new with you in My Father's kingdom." We understand the kingdom came into existence on the first Pentecost after Christ's resurrection as recorded in Acts 2. We see there that the church was established by people repenting and being baptized. We read in Colossians 1:13 that people were than in the kingdom.

So, when was "that day" that Christ mentioned in Matt. 26:29? We read the New Testament to find out when the church partook of the Lord's Supper. We find out in Acts 20:7 that Paul ate the Lord's Supper on the first day of the week with the church in Troas. We don't read of the Lord's Supper being eaten on any other day in the New Testament. Therefore, we eat it each first day of the week because each week has a first day. We know from Paul's example that this would be correct.

But, as to time of day, we are free to eat it at any time as long as it is the first day of the week.

If you have other questions, I will be pleased to try to answer them.

Larry

Numbers 9 and II Chronicles 30 are both talking about observing the Passover. The Passover was instituted as part of the law of Moses so the children of Israel would remember they had been delivered from captivity in Egypt and all their children has been spared when the Lord killed all the firstborn of those who had not placed blood on the doorposts. This had nothing to do with the Lord's Supper.

As I said in the previous email, the Lord's Supper was instituted by Christ during His last supper with His disciples which occurred in about 29 AD, long after the Passover was established.

There is some similarity in that the Jews were to observe an annual Passover feast to remember their deliverance from captivity from Egypt, and we remember the Lord's death in taking the Lord's Supper each first day of the week. The Lord's death and shedding of His blood delivers us from captivity to sin if we obey His will. Other than that similarity, they are different observances under different laws.

Larry

Thank you so much for taking the time to answer my questions. I really appreciate it. I enjoyed visiting your page and will probably do so again.