HOLY SPIRIT NEITHER A PERSON NOR A GOD
Posted: Sat Dec 09, 2006 6:07 pm
1 If the holy spirit is equal with Jehovah God, as claimed by the Athanasian Creed, and if the trinity is the central teaching of the Christian religion, as claimed by The Catholic Encyclopedia, should we not expect these things to be plainly stated in so many words in the Bible? And should this not especially be the case in view of the fact that it is stated that the trinity teaching is "of all revealed truths" "the most impenetrable to reason," and yet salvation depends upon its acceptance? The fact that the Word of God does not explicitly mention, explain or teach a trinity is in itself strong proof that the trinity teaching is false. And this is also borne out by what the Bible teaches regarding the holy spirit.
2 Yes, how could the holy spirit be equal with Jehovah the Father when it is given such a secondary position in the Scriptures? Daniel, Stephen and John in visions saw representations of the Father and the Son, but never one of the holy spirit. Why not, if the holy spirit is equal to the Father and the Son in glory, power, etc.? The creed may state that unless we believe that the holy spirit is equal to God we shall perish, but Jesus, in giving us the rule for life, does not even mention the holy spirit: "This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ."-John 17:3, NW.
3 Far from teaching equality with Jehovah, the Scriptures show that the holy spirit is not even a person. Thus John the Baptist stated that Jesus would baptize "with holy spirit and with fire," even as he was baptizing with water. To baptize means to immerse, to dip, to submerge. A person can baptize others with water, dipping them into it, as John did, and a person can baptize others with fire by immersing them in flames or causing their destruction; but how can one person baptize others with another person? Since neither water nor fire is personal, is it not reasonable to conclude that the holy spirit is also not a person? Besides, Peter stated that God poured out 'some of his spirit' upon all kinds of flesh. Can we imagine some of a person being poured out on thousands of other persons, as was the case at Pentecost after Peter had preached to the Jews?-Matt. 3:11; Acts 2:17, 38, 41, NW.
4 That the holy spirit is without personality is also indicated by the fact that it has no distinctive name. God, the Creator, has many distinctive appellations. His name is Jehovah, and he only is "The God," or "The [true] God," he only is the "Most High" and the "Almighty." He is thus distinctly distinguished from other gods or mighty ones. Likewise with his Son, Jesus Christ. There is only one by that name, only one "only-begotten Son," only one "First-born," only one Logos or "Word."
5 But not so with the holy spirit. Jehovah, Christ and the faithful angels are all holy spirits. Is the holy spirit "The holy spirit"? If so, in what way does he excel Jehovah and Christ either as respects being a spirit or being holy? And more than a hundred times the holy spirit is referred to as "the spirit of Jehovah," "God's spirit," "my spirit" and "spirit of Jesus Christ." All such possessive uses of the holy spirit further argue that it is an instrumentality rather than a separate and distinct person.-Judg. 3:10; Matt. 3:16; Acts 2:18; Phil. 1:19, NW.
6 And note still another point, that of location. The Bible tells us that God dwells in heaven, that he holds court there. Also that Jesus in his prehuman existence was rejoicing in his Father's presence, that he came to earth to perform special missions, especially at the time he came as a man, and that he has now returned to heaven. Where was or where is the holy spirit now if it is a person? Did "he" come down upon Jesus at Jordan and then remain, or return and then come again at Pentecost? Is "he" now in heaven with God and Christ, or is "he" scattered throughout the earth wherever Christ's followers are to be found?
7 The fact is that the truth about the holy spirit has been beclouded by the prejudices of Bible translators. Their use of capital letters cannot be used to prove the holy spirit is a person. Why not? Because at the time the Scriptures were written proper and common nouns were not thus distinguished from each other. The same is true regarding their adding the definite article the before holy spirit in some hundred instances where the Bible writers had not done so. To omit the definite article seemed disrespectful to such Bible translators but not to the Bible writers. Thus Paul wrote that God's kingdom meant "peace and joy with holy spirit," not "with the holy spirit." And Peter wrote that God's servants spoke, being "borne along by holy spirit," not "by the holy spirit."-Rom. 14:17; 2 Pet. 1:21, NW.
2 Yes, how could the holy spirit be equal with Jehovah the Father when it is given such a secondary position in the Scriptures? Daniel, Stephen and John in visions saw representations of the Father and the Son, but never one of the holy spirit. Why not, if the holy spirit is equal to the Father and the Son in glory, power, etc.? The creed may state that unless we believe that the holy spirit is equal to God we shall perish, but Jesus, in giving us the rule for life, does not even mention the holy spirit: "This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ."-John 17:3, NW.
3 Far from teaching equality with Jehovah, the Scriptures show that the holy spirit is not even a person. Thus John the Baptist stated that Jesus would baptize "with holy spirit and with fire," even as he was baptizing with water. To baptize means to immerse, to dip, to submerge. A person can baptize others with water, dipping them into it, as John did, and a person can baptize others with fire by immersing them in flames or causing their destruction; but how can one person baptize others with another person? Since neither water nor fire is personal, is it not reasonable to conclude that the holy spirit is also not a person? Besides, Peter stated that God poured out 'some of his spirit' upon all kinds of flesh. Can we imagine some of a person being poured out on thousands of other persons, as was the case at Pentecost after Peter had preached to the Jews?-Matt. 3:11; Acts 2:17, 38, 41, NW.
4 That the holy spirit is without personality is also indicated by the fact that it has no distinctive name. God, the Creator, has many distinctive appellations. His name is Jehovah, and he only is "The God," or "The [true] God," he only is the "Most High" and the "Almighty." He is thus distinctly distinguished from other gods or mighty ones. Likewise with his Son, Jesus Christ. There is only one by that name, only one "only-begotten Son," only one "First-born," only one Logos or "Word."
5 But not so with the holy spirit. Jehovah, Christ and the faithful angels are all holy spirits. Is the holy spirit "The holy spirit"? If so, in what way does he excel Jehovah and Christ either as respects being a spirit or being holy? And more than a hundred times the holy spirit is referred to as "the spirit of Jehovah," "God's spirit," "my spirit" and "spirit of Jesus Christ." All such possessive uses of the holy spirit further argue that it is an instrumentality rather than a separate and distinct person.-Judg. 3:10; Matt. 3:16; Acts 2:18; Phil. 1:19, NW.
6 And note still another point, that of location. The Bible tells us that God dwells in heaven, that he holds court there. Also that Jesus in his prehuman existence was rejoicing in his Father's presence, that he came to earth to perform special missions, especially at the time he came as a man, and that he has now returned to heaven. Where was or where is the holy spirit now if it is a person? Did "he" come down upon Jesus at Jordan and then remain, or return and then come again at Pentecost? Is "he" now in heaven with God and Christ, or is "he" scattered throughout the earth wherever Christ's followers are to be found?
7 The fact is that the truth about the holy spirit has been beclouded by the prejudices of Bible translators. Their use of capital letters cannot be used to prove the holy spirit is a person. Why not? Because at the time the Scriptures were written proper and common nouns were not thus distinguished from each other. The same is true regarding their adding the definite article the before holy spirit in some hundred instances where the Bible writers had not done so. To omit the definite article seemed disrespectful to such Bible translators but not to the Bible writers. Thus Paul wrote that God's kingdom meant "peace and joy with holy spirit," not "with the holy spirit." And Peter wrote that God's servants spoke, being "borne along by holy spirit," not "by the holy spirit."-Rom. 14:17; 2 Pet. 1:21, NW.